“Contender Ministries,” challenged LDS individuals to answer the following questions, and so I made an attempt. All of the questions come from their website.
Many of their questions are legitimate. Others are designed after the manner of questions addressed to Jesus by the Sadducees and Pharissees – that is, simply to be embarrassing. For the most part, I will let the reader decide which is which. I will simply do my best to answer the questions as written. The answers are solely my own and might be answered in different (and better) ways by other Mormons.
I am not really a Church apologist. I would rather be considered an apologist for the truth. Therefore, I just call them as I see them. Not every answer is slanted to “standard” Church views. Obviously, not everyone is going to like my answers.
Note: I did skip four of their questions because they were redundant, I could not decipher the question, or they were asking questions about personal testimony (willingness to accept of Jesus into the heart). Consequently, my numbering scheme differs a little bit from theirs.
QUESTION 1.
If Gods are individuals who have passed through mortality and have progressed to Godhood, how has one person of the Trinity (the Holy Spirit) attained Godhood without getting a body? (See Acts 5:3,4)
Answer: Good question, and no one knows the answer. Mormonism does not claim to have all the answers. Here’s one for you: If God is just a spirit, then why do you need a Holy Ghost in your trinity? Since you believe the terms God and Holy Ghost are the same essence, don’t you have a “duality” (Father & Son) instead of a true “trinity” (Father, Son, & Holy Ghost)? I don’t think you have all the answers either.
QUESTION 2.
If Gods are individuals who have passed through an earth life to attain Godhood, how is it that one person of the Trinity (Jesus Christ) was God before He received a body or passed through earth life? (Matt. 1:23 and Hebrews 10:5)
Answer: Again, we do not claim to understand all mysteries. Your basic question boils down to: How did God become God? How can anyone know the answer to that? We know that Jesus was Jehovah (Yahweh) who created (organized) the earth. However, even Jesus while on the earth increased in wisdom (Luke 2:52). “He received not of the fulness at the first, but continued from grace to grace until he received a fulness” (D&C 93:12–13).
QUESTION 3.
If the Book of Mormon really contains the fullness of the Gospel, why does it not teach the doctrine of “eternal progression”? (See D&C 20:8,9)
Answer: “Fullness of the gospel” means fullness of the first principles of salvation (faith, repentance, baptism, and Holy Ghost). There is no greater missionary tool in this Church than the Book of Mormon. It is a great tool because it emphasizes first principles. Eternal progression (theosis) is not a first principle of salvation, and Joseph Smith did not teach the concept until 1844. No book of scripture contains all gospel knowledge. This is why we need (and have always needed) prophets.
QUESTION 4.
How can any men ever become Gods when the Bible says, “Before me there was no god formed, neither shall there be after me”? (Isaiah 43:10)
Answer: There is only one God the Father. It will always be so. In the case of Isaiah 43:10, the reader needs to read verse eleven to realize that the context is “beside me there will be no saviour.” Jesus (Jehovah) is indeed the only savior. The doctrine of humans becoming like God is an ancient Christian doctrine known as theosis. Such a doctrine does NOT change the status of God the Father.
QUESTION 5.
If Adam is the “only God with whom we have to do”, did Adam create himself? (Journal of Discourses Vol. 1, pg. 50, 51)
Answer: Your question refers to the so-called “Adam-God doctrine” ostensibly taught by Brigham Young. The Church does not accept the notion that Adam is equivalent to our Father in Heaven. However, Adam does have a special status as an earthly father, and he holds a special patriarchal status (see D&C 78:15-16). Brigham Young’s teachings on Adam-God were confusing and sometimes contradictory. The “Adam = God the Father” concept is NOT scriptural (see Genesis 1, Luke 3:38; Moses 2-5; D&C 78:15-22). According to the following Brigham Young quotation, Adam was subordinate to the Father:
Journal of Discourses, Vol.13, p.311 - p.312, Brigham Young, April 17, 1870
[T]he Gospel tells us that we are the sons and daughters of that God whom we serve. Some say, "we are the children of Adam and Eve." So we are, and they are the children of our Heavenly Father. We are all the children of Adam and Eve, and they and we are the offspring of Him who dwells in the heavens, the highest Intelligence that dwells anywhere …
If Brigham Young believed in an Adam-God theory, then he was wrong. If he had taught a clear and consistent doctrine, then one must wonder why his teaching never became official doctrine. The Council of Twelve never accepted such a doctrine. Finally, teachings from the temple that Brigham Young promoted, recognized the subordinate role of Adam to God the Father.
QUESTION 6.
Joseph Smith stated that without the ordinances and authority of the priesthood no man can see the face of God and live (D & C 84:21, 22). He also said that he saw God in 1820 (Joseph Smith 2:17). Joseph Smith, however, never received any priesthood until 1829 (D&C 13). How did he see God and survive? In which was he in error: his revelation in D & C 84:21, 22 or his experience in the grove?
Answer: The “grove” experience took place about 1820, and D&C Section 84 was given in 1832. The short answer is that God was saying in D & C 84:21-22 that He would work through the priesthood. The Lord said in verse 75: "this revelation...is in force from this very hour upon all the world." The “hour” was 1832.
Clearly, the 1820 grove experience was exceptional, because there was no priesthood on the earth at the time. After the priesthood was restored, the Lord announced in D&C 84 that he would reveal Himself through the appropriate lines of the priesthood.
QUESTION 7.
If a spirit is a being without a body (see Luke 24:39), why do Mormons teach that God the Father has a body of flesh and bones? (See John 4:24).
Answer: God is a dual being consisting of a perfected spirit and a perfected body. We do not accept that God is only a spirit. In fact, the Luke verse cited above testifies to the physical nature of the resurrection. Are you suggesting Jesus had a body and no spirit? Probably not. Neither are we.
QUESTION 8.
If the Father is Elohim and Jesus is Jehovah (as the Mormons teach), how does a Mormon explain Deuteronomy 6:4, which in the Hebrew says, “Hear, O Israel: Jehovah our Elohim is one Jehovah”?
Answer: The term “Elohim” often does not refer to God the Father. One must rely on context. The very common term LORD-God (e.g., Genesis 2:18) could be translated as Jehovah-Elohim. Deuteronomy 6:4 is a slight variant of that name combination. The LORD our god is indeed one LORD, meaning that we do not also worship Baal, Asherah, or Zeus.
QUESTION 9.
If the Book of Mormon contains the fullness of the Gospel, why doesn’t it teach that God was once a man?
Answer: Your question is based on the common Protestant assumption that God gives all gospel knowledge through the scriptures. This is why so many believe that there can be no other “Bible.” Mormons have never believed that a single book could contain all of God’s will. Unlike you, we believe in continuous revelation. The Book of Mormon contains the fullness of the principles of salvation based in first principles. It is a fabulous introductory book, but make no mistake, the Book of Mormon is introductory.
QUESTION 10.
If Mormonism is the restored church, which is based upon the Bible, why are Mormon leaders so quick to state that the Bible is “translated wrong” when faced with some conflict between the Bible and Mormonism?
Answer: Your question is based on a number of false premises. While it is common knowledge in academic circles that the Bible has numerous translation problems, it is extremely rare for Mormons to point to a passage and claim, “It was translated wrong.” Mormons merely recognize that the Bible was transmitted to us through generations of error-prone human beings. What is remarkable is how accurate the Bible is. Mormons concentrate on the Bible’s accuracy, not on any of its presumed errors.
Finally, we are NOT a restored Church based entirely on the Bible. Our Church is consistent with the Bible, but too much has been lost through the ages to rely upon the Bible alone. The restored Church required much additional revelation beyond the Bible to become what it has become.
QUESTION 11.
If Jesus was conceived as a result of a physical union between God and Mary, how was Jesus born of a virgin? (Journal of Discourses Vol. 1, page 50)
Answer: This is a ridiculous question that presumes we understand how Jesus was conceived. True, Mormons believe in physical processes, not magic. Mary was a virgin in the sense that Joseph did not impregnated her. Otherwise, we should not presume what happened. Again, Mormons do not claim to have all the answers.
QUESTION 12.
Why did Christ not return in 1891 as Joseph Smith predicted? (History of the Church, Vol. 2 page 182).
Answer: He did not make the prediction you described. This question appears to be based on D&C 130: 14-15, which is found in HC 5: 323-325, not volume 2 as you indicate. Verse 15 indicates that “if thou [Joseph Smith] livest until thou art eighty-five years old, thou shalt see the face of the Son of Man.” Joseph Smith died when he was 39.
QUESTION 13.
Journal of Discourses Vol. 2, page 210 says Jesus was being married to Mary and Martha in Cana. Why then was he INVITED to his own wedding? (John 2:1,2)
Answer: You refer to Orson Hyde’s speculation in 1855. He would have to answer your question. All I can do is quote the following:
DeseretNews.Com, Wednesday, May 17, 2006
Dale Bills, a spokesman for The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints, said in a statement released Tuesday:
"The belief that Christ was married has never been official church doctrine. It is neither sanctioned nor taught by the church. While it is true that a few church leaders in the mid-1800s expressed their opinions on the matter, it was not then, and is not now, church doctrine."
QUESTION 14.
Why does the Mormon church teach that there is no eternal hell when the Book of Mormon teaches that there is? (I Nephi 14:3, II Ne. 9:16;28: 21-23, Mosiah 3:25, Alma 34:35, Heleman 6:28 and 3:25,26).
Answer: Hell would be the place where God does not abide. Mormons certainly believe in such a place. It is probably true, however, that the Mormon concept of Hell differs from yours.
QUESTION 15.
How can Mormons teach that the repentant thief was not saved when the Book of Mormon states that Paradise is where the righteous go? (Luke 23:43, Alma 40:12, 16)
Answer: Mormons teach that the thief was saved, but he will not necessarily be exalted. Joseph Smith taught:
Teachings of the Prophet Joseph Smith, Section Six 1843-44 p.309
I will say something about the spirits in prison. There has been much said by modern divines about the words of Jesus (when on the cross) to the thief, saying, "This day shalt thou be with me in paradise." King James' translators make it out to say paradise. But what is paradise? It is a modern word: it does not answer at all to the original word that Jesus made use of. Find the original of the word paradise. … There is nothing in the original word in Greek from which this was taken that signifies paradise; but it was -- This day thou shalt be with me in the world of spirits: then I will teach you all about it and answer your inquiries… .
Strong’s Concordance indicates that the Greek word for paradise (#G3857) in Luke 23:43 signifies, among other meanings, an enclosed park for hunting, an abode for souls in hades, and a place in neither earth or heaven but above the world. Joseph Smith’s interpretation is not too distant from modern scholarship.
QUESTION 16.
How did Nephi with a few men on a new continent build a temple like Solomon’s while Solomon needed 163,300 workmen and seven years to build his temple? (See I Kings 5:13-18 and II Nephi 5:15-17)
Answer: Nephi did not say he built an exact replica. This is what he actually said:
2 Nephi 5:16
16 And I, Nephi, did build a temple; and I did construct it after the manner of the temple of Solomon save it were not built of so many precious things; for they were not to be found upon the land, wherefore, it could not be built like unto Solomon's temple. But the manner of the construction was like unto the temple of Solomon; and the workmanship thereof was exceedingly fine.
Notice that he was saying that he did the best he could with very limited resources.
But, let’s recognize an empirical fact: ancient peoples did built temples (even if not based on Solomon’s temple) on the American continent. There is no reason to cut short the capacity of ancient people. They could move big stones.
QUESTION 17.
If the book of Mormon is true, why hasn’t a valid geography been established for the book?
Answer: Many Book of Mormon scholars consider Mesoamerica to be very consistent with the geographical requirements of the book. However, no one knows for sure. Generally, I have not been impressed with LDS scholarship on the matter, except those studies which have argued that the Book of Mormon has a consistent and coherent internal geography. Book of Mormon archeology falls well short of Bible archeology. The strength of the Book of Mormon is its spiritual teachings, NOT its geography lessons.
QUESTION 18.
Why was Joseph Smith still preaching against polygamy in October 1843 after he got his revelation in July 1843 commanding the practice of polygamy? (D & C 132; and History of the Church Vol. 6, page 46, or Teachings of the Prophet, page 324)
Answer: Polygamy in Nauvoo was a very limited secret practice. Monogamy was sanctioned for everyone else in the Church. This is a tough issue. If Joseph Smith handled the practice badly, then he must bear his own mistakes.
QUESTION 19.
If Lehi left Jerusalem before 600 B.C., how did he learn about synagogues? (See II Nephi 26:26)
Answer: The concept of synagogue (Hebrew = Beth Knesset) was just beginning to be adopted around the time of Lehi. All we really know is that Joseph Smith translated some term into the Greek-based word “synagogue.” Whatever the original word, it meant something like: religious congregation. “Synagogue” could be simply a “best equivalent.” All translations are a compromise.
QUESTION 20.
If the Book of Mormon is true, why do Indians fail to become white when they become Mormons? (II Nephi 30:6 – prior to 1981 revision)
Answer: This is a most ridiculous interpretation of LDS scriptures that the LDS people do NOT accept. See my essay: Racism has no place.
QUESTION 21.
What kind of chariots did the Nephites have in 90 B.C. some 1500 years before the introduction of the wheel on the Western Hemisphere? (Alma 18:9)
Answer: I do not know. However, the Book of Mormon message is Christ, not chariots. I think we have much left to learn about transportation systems in the Americas. Even so, your question is good. The verse you cite also refers to horses. I know of no strong evidence that horses or chariots were in the Americas in 90 B.C., the rough time frame of the passage.
QUESTION 22.
How do Mormons account for the word “church” in the Book of Mormon, about 600 B.C., which was centuries before the beginning of the Church on the day of Pentecost? (I Nephi 4:26)
Answer: Again, refer to #19 above. The Book of Mormon consists of modern terminology for the benefit of modern readers. We do not pretend to know anything about the actual ancient words that were used. No translation has perfect word equivalents.
QUESTION 23.
How do Mormons account for the italicized words in the King James Version (indicating their absence in the Hebrew and Greek) being found in the Book of Mormon? (A comparison of Mosiah 14 and Isaiah 53 will provide at least 13 examples)
Answer: Obviously, Joseph Smith was influenced by the King James Version of the Bible in his translation. I do not see why this is a problem for anyone inside or outside of the Church. It seems to me that God expects us to use all the resources at our disposal. The Bible was available. Maybe I am missing something. The 1830 Book of Mormons quotes large passages from Isaiah, and although there are some wording changes, the punctuation is nearly identical with the KJV. While it is true Joseph Smith may not have provided punctuation in the translation process, somewhere along the line the KJV was involved in the printed product. Regardless, Isaiah was certainly in Joseph Smith’s head, if not elsewhere. None of these issues affects the validity of the Book of Mormon.
QUESTION 24.
How did the French word “adieu” get into the Book of Mormon? (Jacob 7:27)
Answer: “Adieu” is a French word that was commonly used in English. The word is found in Webster’s 1828 dictionary. Many, if not most, common words in English have a foreign derivation. The usage merely reflects a word choice made by Joseph Smith.
QUESTION 25.
Was it right or wrong for Solomon to have many wives? (See Jacob 2:24; D & C 132:38,39) Which is it?
Answer: The short answer is that both David and his son Solomon took legal (e.g., 2 Sam. 12:7-9) and illegal wives (e.g., 1 Kings 11:1-6). The illegal wives were the sin, not the polygamy that had been sanctioned. The key is a verse you did not cite: Jacob 2: 30, which indicates that if God wants He will raise up a seed unto Him; otherwise polygamy is prohibited.
QUESTION 26.
If polygamy was a provision for increasing population rapidly, why did God give Adam only one wife?
Answer: The notion that polygamy produces rapid increases in population is a complete myth. A polygamous woman can have only one baby at a time. In fact, polygamous wives usually have less children than monogamous ones, since they see their husband less. Why did Adam have only one wife? Who knows? You ask the question as if Mormons should care. We do NOT care that Adam had only one wife.
QUESTION 27.
D&C 129:4, 5 says, “When a messenger comes saying he has a message from God, offer him your hand and request him to shake hands with you. If he be an angel he will do so, and you will feel his hand.” How can this test distinguish between an angel of God and a Jehovah’s Witness missionary…or a Mormon Elder?
Answer: The citation you give is incomplete. The full section consists of nine verses, all of which are necessary for context (v. 1-9). This section of the D&C gives the keys to discerning ministering angels from evil spirits. Nothing is given that suggests these keys will discern between angels, missionaries of other faiths, and LDS Elders. Thus your question is faulty.
QUESTION 28.
If Joseph Smith was a true prophet, why did he fail to realize that “Elias” is the N.T. form of the name “Elijah”? (D & C 110:12,13 and 1 Kings 17:1 and James 5:17) How could Elijah (Elias) have appeared to Joseph Smith in the Kirkland Temple as two different people?
Answer: Ancient writers often combined characters and names in confusing ways. Elijah was Elias, but there is also another sense for “Elias.” Bruce R. McConkie stated the following:
Bruce R. McConkie, The Millennial Messiah, ~p.103
There is no valid reason for confusion as to the identity and mission of Elias. There was a man named Elias who came to Joseph Smith and Oliver Cowdery on April 3, 1836, in the Kirtland Temple to restore "the gospel of Abraham." (D&C 110:12.) Whether he was Abraham himself or someone else from his dispensation, we do not know. Elias is one of the names of Gabriel who is Noah, and it was in this capacity that Gabriel visited Zacharias the father of John the Baptist. (D&C 27:6-7.) Elias is the Greek form of the Hebrew Elijah, and in this sense has reference to the prophet from Tishbe. Elias is also the title or name of a forerunner who goes before to prepare the way for someone who is greater; this is the doctrine of Elias, and in this sense John the Baptist was both Elias and an Elias. John came in the way that Gabriel (who is Elias) promised, that is, "in the spirit and power of Elias, to make ready a people prepared for the Lord." (Luke 1:17.) In this sense also, the Aaronic Priesthood is the Priesthood of Elias because it prepares men for the greater priesthood. We shall hereafter speak of Joseph Smith as the Elias who came to prepare the way for the Second Coming.
QUESTION 29.
If children have no sins until they are eight years old, why are they baptized at age eight to wash away non-existent sins? (See Moroni 8:8)
Answer: This question seems to suggest a misunderstanding of the purpose of baptism. Anyone who is baptized must have the capacity to "come into the fold of God, and to be called his people, . . . to bear one another's burdens, . . . to mourn with those that mourn, and . . . to stand as witnesses of God . . . even until death" (Mosiah 18:8-9). Infants do not have this capacity. Baptized individuals enter a covenant to keep God's commandments, and to serve Him to the end (2 Ne. 31:6-17; Moro. 6:2-4; D&C 20:37). In turn, God promises remission of sins, redemption, and the gift of the Holy Ghost (Acts 22:16; 3 Ne. 30:2). Mormons believe that eight-year olds have the capacity to sin as they are at the age of accountability.
QUESTION 30.
How could the Garden of Eden have been in Missouri when the Pearl of Great Price declares that it was in the vicinity of Assyria and had the Euphrates and Hiddekel Rivers in it? (See P of GP Moses 3:14 and D&C 116 and 117; Genesis 2:8-15)
Answer: See the footnote in Moses 3:13. Adam-ondi-Ahman had rivers and lands with names that were used at other locations. This is a common cultural practice: e.g., York and New York. You refer to a somewhat obscure teaching. I believe there is more to learn about locations. A far more important (and clear) concept is taught in Articles of Faith #10: “…Zion (the New Jerusalem) will be built upon the American continent.”
QUESTION 31.
Brigham Young said, “The only men who become Gods, even the Sons of God, are those who enter into polygamy”. (Journal of Discourses, Vol. 11, page 269) Why did the Mormons yield to the pressure of the government and stop practicing polygamy?
Answer: Polygamy was taught as the highest form of marriage for a period of time (1852-1890). That practice has now discontinued. The Church did not yield the practice easily, but fought the government over the issue for nearly forty years. We can only guess why the Lord removed this obligation. However, it was important in the 1890s for the Church and Utah to begin to move into the mainstream of American social life. The discontinuance of polygamy allowed this progress to happen. Polygamy is now entirely prohibited. Modern practice of plural marriage leads to immediate excommunication.
My early Mormon ancestors practiced polygamy. Based upon what I have read of their lives, I am glad to be a monogamist.
QUESTION 32.
Heber C. Kimball stated, “We are the people of Deseret, she shall be no more Utah: we will have our own name”. Why did this prophecy fail? (J of D. Vol. 5, page 161)
Answer: Elder Kimball did not indicate that his statement was a prophecy. His statement was merely aggressive rhetoric. This statement was made on August 30, 1857, a date when the “Utah War” (almost the first U.S. civil war) was beginning to flare up. During this brief time the Church was not real excited about being a part of the United States. Many wanted the territory to be renamed to “Deseret,” a label given to the territory when the Mormons first arrived. These heightened emotions led in part to the infamous Mountain Meadow Massacre in September. Fortunately, things calmed down, and Utah territory retained its name.
QUESTION 33.
How did Joseph Smith carry home the golden plates of the Book of Mormon, and how did the witnesses lift them so easily? (They weighted about 230 lbs. Gold, with a density of 19.3 weighs 1204.7 lbs. Per cubic foot. The plates were 7” x 8” by about 6”. See Articles of Faith, by Talmage, page 262, 34th Ed.)
Answer: Your question has many flaws. Joseph Smith described the plates as about 6x8x6 inches (HC: 4: 537). You assume the plates were made of pure gold. You also assume the plates would lie perfectly flat allowing no air as part of the volume. Most LDS scholars believe the plates would have been made of a gold, silver, and copper alloy yielding a much lower density coefficient. Allowing for air between plates, most LDS estimates (and eyewitnesses) put the weight of the plates between 40 and 50 pounds.
QUESTION 34.
When Christ died, did darkness cover the land for three days or for three hours? (See Luke 23:44 and III Nephi 8:19-23).
Answer: The Book of Mormon citation indicates that for about three hours in the western hemisphere there was thunder and lightening, high winds, and earthquakes. A vapor of darkness then settled over the land for about three days. Evidently, this was different than the meteorological events that took place on the eastern hemisphere. All we can go by are the scriptural accounts.
QUESTION 35.
If the Book of Mormon was translated by the gift and power of God, why have the Mormons changed it? (There have been over 3,000 changes in the Book of Mormon …).
Answer: There may have been about 3000+ grammatical and spelling changes in the current Book of Mormon relative to the original 1830 version. It is easy to compare the new version with the old version on the internet. One can see that the changes were necessary for improved punctuation, grammar, and spelling, and numerical identification (versification).
I know of only one change that significantly altered the meaning of the passage. It is found in Mosiah 21: 28. The 1837 Kirkland edition (approved by Jos. Smith) changed “king Benjamin” to “king Mosiah.” While there have been a handful of other word insertions, those changes clarified meaning rather than altered the meaning.
For example, some critics have tried to make an issue that “God” was changed to “Son of God” in 1 Nephi 11: 18, 21, & 32 in the 1837 edition. The context of these verses is clearly about Jesus, but further, in the same chapter “son of God” was present in the 1830 version in verses 6, 7, and 24. The Kirkland changes were made merely for clarity and not for reasons of some fantasized conspiracy.
Note: The Church does not claim that the Book of Mormon is free from any errors. It is a correct book in its doctrine, but that does not make it error free.
QUESTION 36.
If God speaks through a prophet, why do Mormons vote on whether or not to receive and authorize it?
Answer: Mormons have their agency. All official principles and revelations of the Church are canonized by “common consent,” which is different than a “vote.” If a new writing is presented as revelation to the body of the Church at Conference, then individuals may either sustain or reject that action. It is much like sustaining someone in a new calling, which is not an act of democracy.
QUESTION 37.
It has been established that the “Sensen” manuscript was simply a common Egyptian burial papyrus. Why do the Mormons still accept the Book of Abraham which was translated from that manuscript?
Answer: You are making assumptions. We do not know what Joseph Smith “translated,” or even exactly how he “translated.” The papyri seemed to be a stimulus, but we are not sure how Joseph did his work. I think Joseph translated the mind of God more than the mind of Egyptians. He did not understand Egyptian. In any case, it is idle speculation to answer your question any farther.
QUESTION 38.
Why is it that no other writings have been found in the language of “Reformed Egyptian”, the supposed language of the Book of Mormon plates? Is there evidence that such a language really existed?
Answer: This is a very good question. I do not have a satisfactory answer, except please realize that early Europeans destroyed all ancient American records that they could find. The conquering Europeans believed that heathens wrote those ancient records. Who knows what valuable archeology was lost? However, you are correct. There are no known American records that fit Joseph Smith’s description of a reformed Egyptian. On the other hand, there are Middle East writings that might, such as those written in hieratic or demotic.
QUESTION 39.
Joseph Smith said that there are men living on the moon who dress like Quakers and live to be nearly 1000 years old. Since he was wrong about the moon, is it safe to trust him regarding the way to heaven? (See The Young Woman’s Journal, Vol 3, pages 263, 264.)
Answer: This is an absurd question. Joseph Smith had his opinions, and his frontier notions of science were often superstitious and wrong. So what? Joseph Smith was a prophet only when acting as such.
QUESTION 40.
Why do Mormons not study Hebrew and Greek so that they can intelligently discuss the accuracy of the translation of the Bible?
Answer: This question is based in religious prejudice. There are many Mormon scholars who know Hebrew and Greek. In fact, BYU is often considered the most multi-lingual university in the United States – due to the many returned young missionaries who serve internationally.
QUESTION 41.
Joseph Smith prepared fourteen Articles of Faith. Why has the original No. 11 been omitted?
Answer: You are wrong. Joseph Smith prepared 13 articles in his 1842 Wentworth letter to the Chicago Democrat. Orson Hyde considered 14 articles in his 1850 newspaper The Frontier Guardian. The Church never accepted the Hyde version. Canonical documents have always had 13.
QUESTION 42.
According to Hebrews 7:24, the Melchizedek Priesthood is not transferable. Why do Mormons pass it from one to another?
Answer: Let’s have an intelligent discussion of Greek. Read the following:
S. Kent Brown; BYU Studies, Vol. 23, No. 1, pg.56
The rather late Christian understanding that Jesus would be the last High Priest of the Melchizedek order (see Hebrew 7:24 …) is based on an erroneous interpretation of the Greek word aparabaton which does not mean "intransmissible" but means "unchangeable" when referring to Jesus' priesthood. More modern versions of the Bible agree with this interpretation.
Hebrews 7:24 (NIV)
but because Jesus lives forever, he has a permanent priesthood. (emphasis added)
Hebrews 7:24 (NASB)
but Jesus, on the other hand, because He continues forever, holds His priesthood permanently. (emphasis added)
Hebrews 7:24 (RSV)
but he holds his priesthood permanently, because he continues for ever. (emphasis added)
Hebrews 7:24 does not imply that the Priesthood of Jesus is not transferable, but rather it implies his Priesthood is unchangeable and permanent. Naturally, Jesus has the power to pass down his eternal authority.
QUESTION 43.
If Mormonism came as a revelation from God, why are the Mormon Temple Oaths almost identical to the oaths of the Masonic Lodge?
Answer: In the LDS temple members of the Church make covenants to live moral lives. These convenants are most definitely not identical to Masonic oaths. There may be common threads, but the experienced would never confuse one for the other. There are far more differences than similarities.
QUESTION 44.
Why did the Nauvoo House not stand forever and ever? (D&C 124:56-60)
Answer: All I know is that the Nauvoo House is still standing!!!!!!! I have visited it many times, since I live near it by about 3 hours.
QUESTION 45.
If genealogies are important, why does the New Testament tell Christians to avoid them? (I Timothy 1:4; Titus 3:9)
Answer: The Bible simply advises Jewish Christians not to brag that they descended directly from Abraham in order to make others feel bad who do not. These verses are advice against bragging, not advice against geneology.
QUESTION 46.
The Bible says, “The blood of Jesus Christ cleanseth from all sin”. Why did Brigham Young say that there are some sins which can be atoned for only by the shedding of ones own blood.
Answer: Brigham Young probably was thinking of murder. I would need to see the quotations to which you refer. Perhaps you have reference to the concept of “blood atonement,” which Brigham is accused of preaching, but the Church never accepted. By the way, the members of the Church do NOT think of their prophets as infalleable.
QUESTION 47.
Why do Mormons insist that Ezekiel 37:15-22 is about two books instead of about two kingdoms as god Himself explained in verse 22?
Answer: The verses are about two kingdoms: the House of Judah to the south and the House of Joseph (consisting of Ephraim and Manasseh) to the north. The House of Judah produced the Bible. The Book of Mormon claims to be derived from the House of Joseph.
The LDS interpretation from verse 16 is that the written messages on the stick of Judah (the Bible) and the stick of Ephraim (the Book of Mormon) will play significant roles in gathering the House of Israel into their own lands. The LDS understand these verses better than anyone else, because only the LDS Church claims to have scripturally significant writings from the House of Joseph (Manasseh). And, yes verses 21 and 22 are particularly important:
Ezekiel 37: 21-22
21 And say unto them, Thus saith the Lord God; Behold, I will take the children of Israel from among the heathen, whither they be gone, and will gather them on every side, and bring them into their own land:
22 And I will make them one nation in the land upon the mountains of Israel; and one king shall be king to them all: and they shall be no more two nations, neither shall they be divided into two kingdoms any more at all:
These verses clearly indicate there will be a gathering process, and that eventually the northern and southern kingdoms will be one. This is a prophecy not yet fulfilled. We believe that scriptures from Judah and Josesph will play a big role – as the verses claim.
QUESTION 48.
If Acts 3:20, 21 is a prophecy about the restoration of Mormonism, why didn’t Jesus return in 1830?
Answer: Jesus did return in 1820 in the first vision. He returned at other times as well during the process of the restoration (e.g., D&C 76: 22-23).
QUESTION 49.
Revelation 14:6,7 is part of the body of prophecy about the future Great Tribulation. How could that passage have been fulfilled by Moroni in 1830?
Answer: Five million Book of Mormons are published each year in a hundred and six languages (Ensign, August, 2005, p. 4). If the angel Moroni is not preaching the everlasting gospel to nearly every nation, kindred, tongue, and people, then what angel is???
QUESTION 50.
In light of Ezekiel 28:13-15 and Hebrews 1:5, how can Satan and Jesus be brothers?
Answer: Isaiah, John and Jude tell us that the Devil and his angels were cast out from their heavenly home (Isaiah 14:12-20; Revelation 12:4, 7-9; Jude 1:6). Read the following:
Encyclopedia of Mormonism, Vol.2, FIRST ESTATE
Latter-day Saints believe that all mankind were begotten as individual spirit children of God, with individual agency, prior to being born into mortality. Using this agency, a third part of these spirits followed Lucifer and rebelled against God and the Plan of Salvation that God proposed to bring about the eventual exaltation of his children through the atoning sacrifice of Jesus Christ. Because of their rebellion, these spirits "kept not their first estate" (Jude 1:6) and were subsequently cast out of heaven, being denied the opportunity of having a mortal body on this earth (D&C 29:36-38; Moses 4:1-4; Abr. 3:26-28; cf. Rev. 12:4, 7-9). All the remaining spirits proved themselves sufficiently faithful to be permitted the privilege of experiencing earth life with a physical body (Abr. 3:22-26).
Jesus and Satan are NOT brothers except in the sense that God created everything. Ultimately, they are NOT comparable because Jesus is the Son of God and is identifiable as God. Satan is the complete opposite, with less status than a human being.
QUESTION 51.
If no person ever receives the Holy Spirit before baptism or without the laying on of hands, how does a Mormon explain the case of Cornelius? (See Acts 10:44-47)
Answer: The Holy Spirit does influence non-baptized individuals. In fact, LDS theology claims that the Holy Spirit is central to the process of conversion. The “gift of the Holy Ghost,” given at the time of confirmation, is a promise of the abiding spirit at all times if the person continues to live the commandments.
QUESTION 52.
If baptism for the dead was a Christian ceremony, why did Paul use the pronoun “they” rather than “we” or “ye”? Why did he exclude himself and other Christians when referring to it? (I Cor. 15:29)
Answer: Paul was saying if the dead are not resurrected, then why bother with baptism for the dead? Paul was using the practice of proxy baptism to help justify the concept of resurrection. Your question implies that he was referring to non-Christians. It makes no sense that Paul would have referred to a heresy to justify the doctrine of resurrection.
Who are the “they?” The New English Bible (published in Great Britain and a non-LDS Bible) says in its footnote to the verse in question:
The most likely interpretation is that some Corinthians had undergone baptism to bear witness to the faith of fellow believers who had died without experiencing that rite themselves.
In other words, many non-LDS scholars accept the possibility that the “they” were practicing Christians.
The true plan of salvation provides billions of people, who have died without hearing of Jesus, a way to reach God. The true plan of salvation is a plan of success. Those who propose that most of God’s children go to Hell are putting forward a plan of failure. I have trouble believing that God’s plans fail.
QUESTION 53.
Since the Bible says that a Bishop should be the husband of one wife, how can Mormons claim that polygamy is proper for New Testament Christians? (I Timothy 3:2)
Answer: We do not claim that polygamy was practiced by New Testament Christians. It was practiced in Old Testament times.
QUESTION 54.
Why does the Mormon church teach that the broad way leads to the Terrestrial Heaven when Jesus taught that it leads to destruction? (Matthew 7:13, 14)
Answer: Where in LDS scripture does it say the broad way leads to the Terrestrial Kingdom? I have never heard of such a thing. It is only the straight and narrow way that leads to God. All else is destruction in one form or another.
*****Copyright 2008 S.Faux (Email: foxgoku54 [at] gmail [d0t] com; URL: http://mormoninsights.blogspot.com). Readers may distribute this post for noncommercial purposes provided such distributing is of the entire post, including author's copyright and contact information. All other rights reserved.

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